This is a philosophical issue that I have been struggling to resolve, so do not expect there to be a right or wrong (or even a conclusive) answer at the end of this blog post. The purpose of today’s post is to pose a debate.
Say a person was asked to write a hit pop song combining modern influences of the time with trap beats, EDM-like bass, and retro synthwave dance. That was the person’s intention. After writing the song, it happened to become a classical song worthy of Mozart’s praise.
Did this person write a good or bad song?
Is it good because the music is good and the person is being artistic? Or, is it bad because it did not fulfill the original intention?
If you say that the song was good, then how do we define a good or bad song then if it seems the only criteria for it to be good is that it received praise?
On the other hand, if you say that it was a bad song, does that mean all “happy accidents” (like playing an unintentional note during improvisation, but working really well with the harmony) are labelled wrong or unmusical because they were done without fulfilling the original intention?
Personally, I am still undecided, but it is still worth to talk about and say…
Just thinking out loud.